Sensorimotor Psychotherapy for Trauma Themes–Module 3A Post-test | August 27-October 21, 2022

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1. What was Pierre Janet’s term for a completed action that was previously interrupted or unable to complete?*
- An act of triumph
- Procedural learning
- Mind-Body-Spirit Holism
- Well-being
2. SP’s Phase Two is also known as*
- a. Developing Resources
- b. Moving Forward
- c. Addressing the Past
- d. Integration
3. Clients may be ready to transition from phase one to phase two if*
- a. They can track themselves for dissociation and hyper- or hypo-arousal
- b. They are almost always in the state of well-being
- c. They have developed a repertoire of somatic resources
- d. A and C
3. Clients may be ready to transition from phase one to phase two if*
- a. They can track themselves for dissociation and hyper- or hypo-arousal
- b. They are almost always in the state of well-being
- c. They have developed a repertoire of somatic resources
- d. A and C
4. When your client is ready for phase two, you will notice their growing ability for regulation.*
- True
- False
5. It is not necessary to build a strong therapeutic relationship with a client before working with traumatic memories.*
- True
- False
6. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of explicit memory?*
- Conscious concepts, details, and narratives
- In states of well-being, the ability to rehearse, encode, and recall memories at will
- Can be impacted in overwhelming circumstances
- Somatic, subconscious, and emotional
7. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of implicit memory?*
- Subconscious, somatic, emotional
- Conscious concepts, details, and narratives
- Can be evoked in state-specific conditions
- Can be learned through repetitions, novel experience, or overwhelming experience
8. Which of the following adjectives best describes explicit memory?*
- Subconscious
- Conscious
- Procedural
- Biases
9. Which of the following adjectives best describes implicit memory?*
- Details
- Deliberate
- Subconscious
- Conscious
10. Implicit memories are focused on details and narratives, while explicit memories are more often somatic and affective.*
- True
- False
11. Traumatic reactions in the body are often stored in*
- Cognition
- Acts of triumph
- Implicit memory
- Explicit memory
12. Implicit memories related to traumatic experience may include*
- Somatosensory fragments
- Hyperaroused reactions
- Hypoaroused reactions
- All of the above
13. Which of the following terms best describes the idea that groups have shared experiences of trauma?*
- Collective memory
- Implicit memory
- Explicit Memory
- Biographical memory
14. Which of the following might be indicators of collective memory?*
- Mentions of family
- Mentions of culture
- Mentions of religion or spirituality
- All of the above
15. We often orient towards novelty and away from what is habitual.*
- True
- False
16. Orienting responses may be..*
- Instinctual
- Conscious
- Involuntary
- All of the above.
17. We have procedurally learned and instinctual orienting responses.*
- True
- False
18. Orienting response varies according to:*
- The nature of the stimulus
- A client’s past traumatic experiences
- The client’s internal state of arousal
- All of the above
19. Clients with disrupted orienting responses always evaluate everything as dangerous.*
- True
- False
20. Procedurally learned orienting responses are never useful in everyday life.*
- True
- False
21. Which of the following is the best example of a procedurally learned orienting response from a previous trauma?*
- Turning your head toward a loud noise
- Looking into a rear-view mirror when you hear a vehicle honk
- Constantly scanning the window or door
- All of the above
21. Which of the following is the best example of a procedurally learned orienting response from a previous trauma?*
- Turning your head toward a loud noise
- Looking into a rear-view mirror when you hear a vehicle honk
- Constantly scanning the window or door
- All of the above
22. Which of the following is an example of an instinctual orienting response?*
- Turning your head toward a loud noise
- Looking into a rear-view mirror when you hear a vehicle honk
- Constantly scanning the window or door
- None of the above
23. Defense responses are instinctual, not procedurally learned.*
- True
- False
23. Defense responses are instinctual, not procedurally learned.*
- True
- False
24. Which of the following is NOT an example of a mobilizing defensive response?*
- Fight
- Flight
- Fawning
- Collapse
25. Which of the following is NOT an example of an immobilization defensive response?*
- Collapse
- Submission
- Feigned death
- Flight
26. When an SP practitioner facilitates moving through slivers of memory and allowing involuntary movements of arousal, orienting, and defensive responses to metabolize, this is called…*
- Contacting
- Sensorimotor sequencing
- Resourcing
- Experimenting
27. Working with a sliver of memory helps to not overwhelm the client’s nervous system.*
- True
- False
28. When processing a sliver of memory, it is better to avoid activation within the client altogether.*
- True
- False
29. A sliver of memory is a small but important moment in a memory that can stimulate ANS activation for trauma processing or resourcing.*
- True
- False
30. In Sensorimotor Sequencing, it is important to begin with the sliver of memory that elicits the most ANS activation.*
- True
- False
31. In Sensorimotor sequencing, if the client loses ANS activation when processing the sliver of memory, you may want to:*
- Move on to an earlier sliver of with less activation
- Move on to the next sliver of memory that has activation
- End the session
- Have the client recount the entire memory from start to finish again.
32. What role does bite-sizing play in sensorimotor sequencing?*
- Makes it easier for the therapist to remember what’s going on
- Controls amount of activation and information for client to process
- Time to do psychoeducation
- All of the above
33. In sensorimotor sequencing, the cognitive and emotional reactions to trauma are more important than physical reactions to trauma.*
- True
- False
34. Sensorimotor sequencing helps clients to move through previously incomplete orienting responses or defensive actions.*
- True
- False
35. Within sensorimotor sequencing, you should ask the client to perform various tasks in order to dispel energy.*
- True
- False
36. Within sensorimotor sequencing, if and impulse to move develops, but the movement does not complete, you may want to:*
- Switch to Reinstating Active Defense
- Continue with sequencing the hyperarousal
- Ask the client for their opinion
- Any of the above
37. Once in Phase Two, you can jump right into sensorimotor sequencing with clients.*
- True
- False
38. In SP, collaboratively identifying a missing, interrupted, or thwarted mobilizing defense, and then discovering how the body wants to complete that action is known as*
- Sensorimotor Sequencing
- Framing and contacting
- Reinstating active defense
- Accessing the Past
39. Trauma impacts first and foremost in the cognitive realm.*
- True
- False
40. Reinstating an Active Defense works primarily with*
- Animal defensive responses
- Emotions
- Cognitions
- All of the above
41. The preparatory movements indicative of an active defense can be stimulated through a sliver of traumatic memory.*
- True
- False
42. If a client has an impulse to punch that encourages them to get into bar fights, we should not work with this impulse in Reinstating Active Defense.*
- True
- False
43. RAD always begins with evoking a sliver of memory.*
- True
- False
44. Reinstating Active Defense is an involuntary process, while sensorimotor sequencing is more voluntary.*
- True
- False
45. What kinds of experience are emphasized in Phases One and Two?*
- Emotional
- Cognitive
- Somatic
- All of the above
46. Affect is*
- The experience of vehement emotions
- The general sense of feeling experienced throughout the day
- The sense of purpose and meaning
- The experience of finding your role
47. If a person is watching the sunset at the beach and they report a pleasant feeling, they are said to have a*
- Positive dominance affect response to the sunset
- Negative dominance affect response to the sunset
- Positive valence affect response to the sunset
- Negative valence affect response to the sunset
48. In the context of affect, activation refers to*
- The degree to which the affect is stimulating, neutral, or calming
- The degree to which the affect is positive or negative
- The degree to which the person feels a sense of control
- All of the above
49. Emotions are objective.*
- True
- False
50. Emotions are based on your sensations and your past experience and are viewed as socially constructed meaning, which takes affect and creates meaning based on cultural norms.*
- True
- False
51. In SP, if a client is feeling scared, angry, or grief-ridden, we want to*
- Ask them why they feel that way
- Explore their physical experience
- Avoid naming emotions
- All of the above
52. If a client is experiencing a shame response that makes experimenting difficult, what might you explore with them?*
- Talking about their feelings
- Resourcing
- Framing
- Writing down a list of things that make them feel shameful
53. Common emotions that come up in trauma therapy include*
- Anger
- Grief
- Shame
- All of the above
54. Exploring the organization of experience of an experience to which the client attributes a belief is called…*
- Accessing the Past
- Going for Meaning
- Reinstating Active Defense
- Sensorimotor Sequencing
55. Which of the following provides a theoretical basis for working with people who have experienced trauma?*
- Theory of relational alchemy
- Theory of somatic dissociation
- Theory of structural dissociation of the personality
- All of the above
56. Structural dissociation of the personality delineates three categories of dissociative experience:*
- Primary, secondary, and tertiary
- Somatic, cognitive, and emotional
- Personal, interpersonal, and extrapersonal
- All of the above
57. Primary structural dissociation of the personality correlates with:*
- Complex PTSD and relational trauma
- Dissociative Identity Disorder or multiplicity
- PTSD
- Somatic experience
58. Secondary structural dissociation of the personality correlates with:*
- Complex PTSD and relational trauma
- PTSD
- Somatic experience
- Dissociative Identity Disorder or multiplicity
59. Tertiary structural dissociation of the personality correlates with:*
- Dissociative Identity Disorder or multiplicity
- Somatic experience
- PTSD
- Complex PTSD and relational trauma
59. Tertiary structural dissociation of the personality correlates with:*
- Dissociative Identity Disorder or multiplicity
- Somatic experience
- PTSD
- Complex PTSD and relational trauma
60. The theory of structural dissociation posits that when a person’s experience outweighs their ability to resource and integrate that experience, the self is dividing into at least one Traumatized Part and at least one Apparently Normal Part.*
- True
- False
61. Within the theory of structural dissociation, the Traumatized part holds traumatic information and responses, while the Apparently Normal Part carries on with functions and roles of everyday life.*
- True
- False
62. Primary structural dissociation may also be known as*
- PTSD
- Simple/discrete trauma
- “Small t” trauma
- All of the above
63. The SP approach to working with traumatic experience can be applied to clients with primary structural dissociation without any adaptation.*
- True
- False
64. Secondary structural dissociation is the division of the self into a part that carries on with daily life and one part that holds traumatic information and responses.*
- True
- False
65. A client with one Apparently Normal Part and one Traumatized Part is said to have*
- Primary structural dissociation
- Secondary structural dissociation
- Tertiary structural dissociation
- Any of the above
66. A client with an Apparently Normal Part and more than one Traumatized Part is said to have*
- Primary structural dissociation
- Secondary structural dissociation
- Tertiary structural dissociation
- Any of the above
67. A client with more than one Apparently Normal Part and more than one Traumatized Part is said to have*
- Primary structural dissociation
- Secondary structural dissociation
- Tertiary structural dissociation
- Any of the above
68. Clients with chronic and multiple traumatic experiences, including relational and childhood trauma, are likely to have*
- Primary structural dissociation
- Secondary structural dissociation
- Tertiary structural dissociation
- Either B or C
69. If you are working with clients who present with complex trauma, relational trauma, and Complex PTSD (CPTSD), you are working with Primary Structural Dissociation*
- True
- False
70. If a client has early traumatic experiences centered around betrayals from their caregivers, you may need to spend more time…*
- Developing a therapeutic relationship
- Resourcing to manage symptoms
- Talking through narratives
- Both A and B
71. Fill in the blanks: Complexity is associated with ____, while multiplicity is associated with ______.*
- Primary structural dissociation; secondary structural dissociation
- Secondary structural dissociation; tertiary structural dissociation
- Somatoform dissociation; psychoform dissociation
- Psychoform dissociation; somatoform dissociation
72. In tertiary dissociation, each TP has control of a different defensive response.*
- True
- False
73. Present moment circumstances impact the functioning of the self-system in tertiary dissociation.*
- True
- False
74. In structural dissociation, each part is unaware of the other parts’ existence.*
- True
- False
75. Which of the following best describes how states and parts of structural dissociation are viewed in SP?*
- Adaptations for survival
- Separate from a true self
- Evidence for other diagnoses
- Challenges to progress
76. The therapeutic relationship demonstrates the potential of relationships outside of the therapy process.*
- True
- False
77. The therapist also requires resources to regulate and replenish themselves.*
- True
- False
78. The therapist’s state does not impact the client.*
- True
- False
79. The therapist’s tolerances both influence and become a model for the client.*
- True
- False
80. What strategy can you use to examine nonverbal exchange as a means of insight into procedural tendencies and attachment-related processes?*
- Resourcing
- Contact
- Tracking
- All of the above
81. What characteristic can the therapist embody to promote new experiences with a trusted-other?*
- Consistency
- Reliability
- Tolerance
- All of the above
82. The therapeutic relationship is unrelated to experiences of being in relationship outside of therapy.*
- True
- False
83. Tracking is a skill that is used to investigate only a client’s experience.*
- True
- False
84. The client’s childhood issues interfacing with the therapist’s childhood issues is an example of*
- Sensorimotor sequencing
- An enactment
- Resourcing
- An act of triumph
85. An enactment has meaning for the client but not the therapist.*
- True
- False
86. Enactments are mistakes made by the therapist.*
- True
- False
87. Which of the following is not true of enactments?*
- They occur in relationship
- They stem from the unconscious
- They are premeditated
- They have meaning for both therapist and client
88. Enactments can be a tool for growth for therapists.*
- True
- False
89. Enactments are best understood as related to the SP principle of*
- Unity
- Relational alchemy
- Mind-Body-Spirit Holism
- Non-violence
90. Rescuing a client from an uncomfortable moment to avoid negative feelings is an example of:*
- Collision
- Collusion
- Transparency
- All of the above
91. Pushing an agenda without collaboration or agreement from the client is an example of:*
- Collision
- Collusion
- Transparency
- All of the above
92. The dance between therapist and client is a subconscious relational communication which may trigger unmetabolized parts of both people.*
- True
- False
93. Which of the following is a good way to explore enactments?*
- Review video recordings of interactions with clients
- Explore your own developmental and relational triggers
- Seek supervision and case consultation
- All of the above
94. The therapist should not acknowledge errors for fear of deepening attachment trauma.*
- True
- False
95. Therapists do not need support systems.*
- True
- False
96. A white person asking a BIPOC where they are from is an example of*
- Microassault
- Microinsult
- Microinvalidation
- All of the above
97. Microassaults, microinsults, and microinvalidations are all types of microaggressions.*
- True
- False
98. Within the therapeutic relationship, microinsults and microinvalidations show up similarly to:*
- Explicit bias
- Enactments
- Unity
- Collective memory
99. In order to work with microaggressions, a therapist should…*
- Work on awareness of implicit biases
- Hypothesize what microaggressions they are likely to enact
- Use mindfulness to challenge our beliefs
- All of the above
100. Unrecognized enactments impact the effectiveness of therapy.*
- True
- False
101. Microagressions by the therapist lead to a weakening of the therapeutic bond and less satisfactory therapy.*
- True
- False
102. The therapeutic relationship should always remain the same across all phases of treatment.*
- True
- False
103. In which phase does the therapist’s role in the therapeutic relationship primarily consist of modeling regulation, well-being, and tolerances?*
- Phase One
- Phase Two
- Phase Three
- All of the above
104. In which phase does the therapeutic relationship become more collaborative, as the therapist more and more often accompanies the client in their exploration rather than managing the client’s arousal?*
- Phase One
- Phase Two
- Phase Three
- All of the above
105. In which phase is the greatest flexibility within the therapeutic relationship warranted, and a more equitable working relationship developed?*
- Phase One
- Phase Two
- Phase Three
- All of the above
106. Tracking core indicators can help you recognize an enactment.*
- True
- False
107. The body can be triggering for clients early in therapeutic work, so it is best to limit core organizers to the cognitive and emotional levels.*
- True
- False
108. By the end of phase two, clients have…*
- Increased their ability to modulate ANS arousal
- Changed their relationship to past experience
- Increased accessibility to parts of the brain responsible for logic, organization, and meaning making
- All of the above
109. Relational resources and boundaries in relationship are most suited to exploration in which phase?*
- Phase One
- Phase Two
- Phase Three
- Any of the above
110. Which of the following are NOT important aspects of well-being for more satisfactory participation in daily life?*
- Addressing limiting beliefs
- Addressing relational wounds
- Integration of fragmented parts of self
- Being able to retell the traumatic event in great detail
111. In Phase Three, it is appropriate to encourage*
- Healthy risk taking
- Initiating change and creating new meanings
- Intimacy
- All of the above
112. In which phase is it appropriate to help the client to “befriend” their parts, by resourcing the ANP enough to tolerate TPs?*
- Phase One
- Phase Two
- Phase Three
- Any of the above
113. A client’s knowledge of what affects their moods in indicative of well-being.*
- True
- False
114. A client’s capacity for enjoyment is unrelated to their well-being.*
- True
- False
115. Which of the following is NOT an indicator that a client is ready for phase three work?*
- They can maintain dual awareness when talking about their trauma history
- They’ve developed a greater sense of agency and confidence
- You notice the client is no longer bothered by a specific issue that caused them grief
- You notice the client’s growing ability to self-regulate and interactively regulate
116. Toward the end of Phase Three, what kinds of procedural tendencies often emerge?*
- Those related to orienting
- Those related to endings and confidence
- Those related to instinctual responses
- Those related to active defenses
117. Which of the following is NOT a good strategy for approaching a completion pattern?*
- Approaching with curiosity
- Using foundational SP skills
- Extending therapy to appease a client
- Helping clients to identify resources outside of the therapeutic relationship
118. Common completion patterns include prolonging the end, focusing on what’s still left to do, focusing on something else, and emotional expression.*
- True
- False
119. Therapists should continually assess their emotional, psychological, and spiritual well-being on a regular basis.*
- True
- False
120. Three avenues for processing developmental injury in SP include befriending adaptive strategy, parts/child states, and the therapeutic relationship.*
- True
- False

Sensorimotor Psychotherapy for Trauma Themes–Module 3A Post-test | August 27-October 21, 2022

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